a***n
发帖数: 40 | 1 f>=0, integral of f over a probability space is finite,
can we deduce that f is finite directly?
By contradiction, I think it is correct, but feel it is a bit weird. Is it
correct??? Thanks a lot! | b****t
发帖数: 22 | 2 of course not
【在 a***n 的大作中提到】
: f>=0, integral of f over a probability space is finite,
: can we deduce that f is finite directly?
: By contradiction, I think it is correct, but feel it is a bit weird. Is it
: correct??? Thanks a lot!
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